SNAP 2025 was easier than last year! Most of the questions were doable but little time consuming and time was the key element. SNAP 2025 – Slot 1 was conducted on 06 December 2025, from 2 PM to 3 PM. The overall test structure stayed identical to the last few years in terms of section-wise breakup and marking scheme. The table below shows the section-wise pattern, difficulty level, good attempts and ideal time allocation (as per Cetking faculty and student feedback):

Section	Number of questions	Level of difficulty	Good Attempts	Suggested time (in minutes)
General English	15	Easy	11-12	8-9
Analytical & Logical Reasoning	25	Easy to Medium	19-20	24-26
Quant	20	Easy to Medium	15-16	25 – 27

Marks per question: 1 / -0.25

Though there was No sectional time limit; students were free to switch between sections Cetking do recommend to follow a strict sectional timings!

SNAP 2025 Test 1 Score vs Percentile

Expected Percentile	Test 1 Expected Score	Colleges
Topper	55+
99.9%ile	50
99.75%ile	49
99.5%ile	47
99%ile	45
98.5%ile	44	SIBM Pune
98%ile	43	SCMHRD Pune
97%ile	42
95%ile	40
94%ile	39	SIIB Pune
92.7%ile	38
90%ile	37	SIBM Bengaluru
86%ile	34.5	SIOM Nashik
80%ile	32	SIIB Pune Agri, SICSR Pune, SIDTM Pune, Sibm hyderabad
75%ile	31	SIMS Pune, SSMC banglore
70%ile	30	SSBF Pune
66%ile	29
50%ile	25	SIHS Pune, SIBM nagpur, SSSS Pune
20%ile	18
10%ile	13

General English

The General English section of SNAP-2025 continued to be straightforward and student-friendly. Like last year, there were no Reading Comprehension passages. Every single question was Verbal Ability / Grammar / Vocabulary based, allowing students to move quickly. Grammar Dominated the Verbal Section.

Breakup of question types:

Question types	Number of questions	Level of difficulty
Analogies (Vocab-based)	2	Easy
FIB – 1 and 2 blanks	9	Easy
Grammar (Parts of speech, Passive voice)	2	Easy
Synonyms	1	Easy
Vocabulary (root)	1	Easy

Takeaway from Cetking:
This section was scoring. With a basic grip on grammar and vocabulary, one could attempt 11–12 questions in about 7-8 minutes with high accuracy.

Analytical & Logical Reasoning

This section had 25 questions with a nice mix of Verbal Reasoning and Non-Verbal / Analytical Reasoning.

• 9 questions were Verbal Reasoning oriented.
• 16 questions were based on non-verbal / analytical patterns, series, arrangements, and logic.

There were several series questions (4 total) along with Linear & Matrix arrangements, Family Tree, Calendar & Clock questions, Binary Logic, and Coding.

Breakup:

Question types	Number of questions	Level of difficulty
Verbal Reasoning
Syllogisms	1	Easy
Course of Action, Ethical Course of Action	3	Easy
Critical Reasoning – Weaken	1	Easy
Implicit Statements	2	Easy
Cause Effect	1	Easy
Statement Arguments	1	Easy
Non-Verbal Reasoning
Complete the series (2 numbers, 2 combined)	4	1 Easy, 1 Medium, 2 Difficult
Linear Arrangement	2	1 Easy, 1 Medium
Matrix Arrangement	2	1 Easy, 1 Medium
Family Tree	2	1 Easy, 1 Medium
Calendar	2	1 Easy, 1 Medium
Clocks	1	1 Easy
Binary Logic	1	1 Difficult
Coding	2	2 Easy

Cetking Summary:
Overall, this section leaned towards Easy to Medium. A sensible strategy was to target about 19–20 attempts in 24–26 minutes, prioritising the easier sets first.

Quantitative, Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency

This section had 20 questions, all from Mathematics. Like SNAP 2024, no Data Interpretation or Data Sufficiency questions appeared. The overall feel was Easy to Medium, with a strong tilt towards Arithmetic.

Topic-wise breakup:

Quantitative, Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency	Easy	Medium	Difficult	Total
Arithmetic	3	4	0	7
Modern Mathematics	3	1	1	5
Geometry	3	0	0	3
Numbers	1	1	0	2
Algebra	2	1	0	3

Cetking Strategy Tip:
A smart attempt would be 15–16 questions in around 25 – 27 minutes, carefully skipping any time-consuming outliers.

SNAP 2025 Test 1 Questions – General English

Q1. What is the meaning of the word “prognostication”?
a. Prediction
b. Identification
c. Hesitation
d. Diagnosis

Q2. Select the correct option to fill the blank: The chairman refused to sign the proposal ______ it lacked proper documentation.
a. because
b. although
c. unless
d. while

Q3. Choose the idiom that best fits the sentence: He revealed the secret unintentionally and ______.
a. let the cat out of the bag
b. hit the nail on the head
c. burned the midnight oil
d. caught red-handed

Q4. Select the word that is similar in meaning to “contemplate”.
a. Ponder
b. Ignore
c. Reject
d. Forget

Q5. Choose the correct preposition to complete the sentence: She has been working here ______ 2015.
a. since
b. for
c. from
d. in

Q6. In the analogy Soporific : Sleep :: Antidote : ?
a. Poison
b. Energy
c. Doctor
d. Injection

Q7. Analogy: INEXORABLE : YIELD
a. Indomitable : Conquer
b. Immutable : Change
c. Insatiable : Consume
d. Unstable : Fall

Q8. Fill in the blanks: The professor’s lecture was ______; he jumped from one topic to another without transition, leaving the students completely ______ .
a. profound … inspired
b. desultory … bewildered
c. methodical … confused
d. coherent … lost

Q9. Fill in the blanks: Although the editor was known for her ______ standards, she was surprisingly ______ regarding the minor errors in the rookie’s manuscript.
a. exacting … lenient
b. low … critical
c. arbitrary … strict
d. ambiguous … forgiving

Q10. Fill in the blanks: Scarcely ______ the station ______ the train arrived.
a. had we reached … than
b. did we reach … then
c. had we reached … when
d. were we reaching … as

Q11. Fill in the blanks: If I ______ about the traffic, I ______ a different route.
a. knew … would take
b. had known … would have taken
c. know … will take
d. have known … would have took

Q12. Root Word: The root word ‘Greg’ in words like ‘Gregarious’ and ‘Congregation’ refers to:
a. Belief
b. Time
c. Flock or Group
d. Speech

Q13. Fill in the blank: She is the ______ student in the entire class.
a. smart
b. smarter
c. smartest
d. more smart

Q14. Fill in the blank: We ______ to the park yesterday evening.
a. go
b. went
c. gone
d. going

Q15. Grammar (Parts of Speech): Identify the part of speech of the underlined word in the sentence: “The up train is running late.”
a. Preposition
b. Adverb
c. Adjective
d. Noun

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Answer Key & Explanations (General English)

• Q1: a) Prediction. Prognostication = a forecast or prediction.
• Q2: a) because. “Because” correctly gives the reason for refusal.
• Q3: a) let the cat out of the bag. Means to reveal a secret (often accidentally).
• Q4: a) Ponder. “Contemplate” means to think deeply or reflect.
• Q5: a) since. Used with a specific starting point in time (“since 2015”).
• Q6: a) Poison. Soporific induces sleep; Antidote neutralizes poison.
• Q7: b) Immutable : Change. Inexorable doesn’t yield; immutable doesn’t change.
• Q8: b) desultory … bewildered. Desultory = jumping between points; students become confused.
• Q9: a) exacting … lenient. Strict standards yet unexpectedly lenient here – gives the needed contrast.
• Q10: c) had we reached … when. Standard structure: “Scarcely had we reached… when…”.
• Q11: b) had known … would have taken. Third conditional for an unreal past situation.
• Q12: c) Flock or Group. Root “greg” = group (as in congregation, gregarious).
• Q13: c) smartest. Superlative required for comparison with “entire class”.
• Q14: b) went. Simple past for a completed action in the past.
• Q15: c) Adjective. “Up” describes the train, so it functions as an adjective here.

Memory-Based Questions – Logical Reasoning

Q1. Find the next number in the series: 11, 19, 35, 59, ?
a. 79
b. 83
c. 91
d. 99

Q2. Statement: The government plans to increase subsidies on renewable energy equipment. Question: Is the subsidy amount expected to reduce the final consumer price?
a. Yes, definitely
b. No, definitely not
c. Cannot be determined from the given information
d. Only if production costs fall

Q3. A man introduces a woman as the daughter of his mother’s only brother. How is the woman related to him?
a. Sister
b. Cousin
c. Niece
d. Aunt

Q4. Four lunch items — Pasta, Rice, Soup, and Salad — are delivered to four floors (1 to 4). Pasta is delivered to a higher floor than Soup. Rice is not delivered to floor 1. Salad is delivered to floor 4. Find the correct arrangement.
a. Floor 1: Soup, Floor 2: Rice, Floor 3: Pasta, Floor 4: Salad
b. Floor 1: Rice, Floor 2: Soup, Floor 3: Pasta, Floor 4: Salad
c. Floor 1: Soup, Floor 2: Pasta, Floor 3: Salad, Floor 4: Rice
d. Floor 1: Rice, Floor 2: Pasta, Floor 3: Soup, Floor 4: Salad

Q5. Three friends — A, B, and C — have different favourite sports: Cricket, Tennis, and Hockey. A does not like Hockey and B likes Tennis. Who likes Cricket?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. Cannot be determined

Q6. Six people — P, Q, R, S, T, U — sit in a row facing North. P sits third to the left of S. Q is to the immediate left of P. R sits at one extreme end. Find the correct seating order.
a. R Q P T S U
b. U Q P S T R
c. R T Q P S U
d. U R Q P S T

Q7. Five people A, B, C, D and E sit in a row. C sits between A and D. B sits to the left of A. E sits at the leftmost position. Who sits at the rightmost position?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

Q8. From the statements given below, choose the correct conclusion: All roses are flowers. Some flowers are red.
a. All roses are red
b. Some roses are red
c. No roses are red
d. No definite conclusion follows

Q9. Based on the statements below, identify the correct inference: Most engineers know programming. All programmers use computers.
a. All engineers use computers
b. Some engineers use computers
c. All computer users are engineers
d. No engineers use computers

Q10. In a certain code language, TREE is written as SUFD. How is HOME written in that code?
a. IPNF
b. HPNF
c. IPME
d. GPNF

Q11. Statement: Heavy rains have caused severe flooding in the low-lying areas of the city, leaving many people stranded. Which Course of Action follows?
I. The government should immediately dispatch rescue teams to evacuate people to safer places.
II. The government should announce a holiday for all offices in the city.
a. Only I follows
b. Only II follows
c. Either I or II follows
d. Both I and II follow

Q12. You find a wallet lying on the street. Inside, you find a significant amount of cash and the owner’s ID card with their address. What should you do?
a. Keep the cash and throw away the wallet.
b. Ignore the wallet and walk away to avoid trouble.
c. Use the ID details to contact the owner and return the wallet with the cash.
d. Donate the cash to a charity and keep the empty wallet.

Q13. You notice a colleague taking office supplies (pens and paper) home for personal use without permission. This is against company policy. What is the most ethical first step?
a. Immediately report them to the boss.
b. Ignore it as it is a small matter.
c. Join them and take some supplies for yourself.
d. Privately talk to the colleague and remind them of the company policy.

Q14. Argument: “Drinking Green Tea helps in weight loss. Therefore, if you drink Green Tea every day, you will definitely lose weight within a month.” Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument?
a. Green Tea contains antioxidants that are good for health.
b. Many people do not like the taste of Green Tea.
c. Weight loss also depends heavily on diet and physical activity, not just one beverage.
d. Green Tea is more expensive than regular tea.

Q15. Statement: “Please put a stamp on the envelope before posting it,” said the clerk to the customer. Which assumption is implicit?
I. The customer knows where to buy a stamp.
II. The post office will not deliver the letter without a stamp.
a. Only Assumption I is implicit
b. Only Assumption II is implicit
c. Neither I nor II is implicit
d. Both I and II are implicit

Q16. Statement: “Use our ‘X-Brand’ detergent for the whitest clothes,” says an advertisement. Which assumption is implicit?
I. People want their clothes to be white and clean.
II. There are other detergents available in the market.
a. Only Assumption I is implicit
b. Only Assumption II is implicit
c. Neither I nor II is implicit
d. Both I and II are implicit

Q17. Statements: I. The government has increased the prices of petrol and diesel. II. The prices of vegetables and essential commodities have increased.
a. Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its effect.
b. Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect.
c. Both statements are independent causes.
d. Both statements are effects of independent causes.

Q18. Statement: Should mobile phones be banned in school classrooms? Arguments: I. Yes, they distract students from their studies. II. No, parents need to be able to contact their children in case of an emergency.
a. Only Argument I is strong
b. Only Argument II is strong
c. Either I or II is strong
d. Both I and II are strong

Q19. Find the next term in the mixed series: 2A, 4C, 6E, 8G, ?
a. 9H
b. 10I
c. 10H
d. 12I

Q20. Find the next term in the mixed series: A5, D10, G15, J20, ?
a. L25
b. M25
c. M30
d. N25

Q21. What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand when the time is 3:00?
a. 60 degrees
b. 90 degrees
c. 120 degrees
d. 180 degrees

Q22. What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand at 4:20?
a. 0 degrees
b. 5 degrees
c. 10 degrees
d. 20 degrees

Q23. If today is Monday, what day of the week will it be after 6 days?
a. Saturday
b. Sunday
c. Monday
d. Tuesday

Q24. There are two inhabitants, A and B. A “Knight” always tells the truth. A “Knave” always lies. Person A says: “I am a Knave.” What is A?
a. A is a Knight
b. A is a Knave
c. A is an alternator
d. This is an impossible statement (Paradox)

Q25. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son.” How is the woman in the photograph related to the man?
a. Mother
b. Sister
c. Aunt
d. Cousin

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Answer Key & Explanations (Logic)

• Q1: c (91). Differences: +8, +16, +24, +32 → next = 59 + 32 = 91.
• Q2: c (Cannot be determined). Final price depends on several unknowns like market forces, production cost etc.
• Q3: b (Cousin). Mother’s only brother = maternal uncle; his daughter = cousin.
• Q4: a. Salad fixed on 4; Rice not on 1 ⇒ Rice on 2; Pasta higher than Soup ⇒ Soup on 1, Pasta on 3.
• Q5: a (A). B = Tennis. A ≠ Hockey ⇒ Cricket. C = Hockey.
• Q6: a (R Q P T S U). Fitting P third left of S, Q immediately left of P and R at an end leads to this unique sequence.
• Q7: d (D). Order: E – B – A – C – D → D at rightmost position.
• Q8: d (No definite conclusion). Roses ⊆ Flowers, some Flowers are Red; we can’t be sure if Roses and Red overlap.
• Q9: b (Some engineers use computers). “Most engineers know programming” + “All programmers use computers” ⇒ at least some engineers use computers.
• Q10: d (GPNF). Tree → SUFD via specific letter shifts; same pattern gives HOME → GPNF.
• Q11: a (Only I follows). Immediate rescue is necessary; declaring holiday isn’t directly linked to flood relief.
• Q12: c. The ethical choice is to use the ID to return the wallet with cash.
• Q13: d. First step ethically is a private conversation, not escalation or copying the behaviour.
• Q14: c. It shows weight loss depends on diet/activity too, weakening the claim that Green Tea alone guarantees results.
• Q15: b (Only II). The request assumes letters without stamps won’t be delivered.
• Q16: d (Both I and II). The advertisement assumes people want white clothes and that rival brands exist.
• Q17: a (I is cause, II is effect). Fuel price hike commonly leads to increased prices of essentials.
• Q18: d (Both strong). Mobiles can distract, but they’re also useful in emergencies – both stand as valid arguments.
• Q19: b (10I). Numbers +2 each time; letters A, C, E, G, I (skipping one letter). So 10I.
• Q20: b (M25). Letters: +3 each (A, D, G, J, M). Numbers: +5 each (5, 10, 15, 20, 25).
• Q21: b (90 degrees). At 3:00, angle = |3 × 30 − 0| = 90°.
• Q22: c (10 degrees). Angle = |30×4 − 5.5×20| = |120 − 110| = 10°.
• Q23: b (Sunday). 6 days after Monday is Sunday.
• Q24: d (Impossible/Paradox). If A is a Knight, he can’t claim to be a Knave; if Knave, he can’t truthfully admit it – paradox.
• Q25: b (Sister). “Grandfather’s only son” = father; his daughter = man’s sister.

Memory-Based Questions – Quantitative Ability

1. A shopkeeper buys an article for Rs 800 and sells it for Rs 920. Find the profit percentage.
a) 12%
b) 15%
c) 18%
d) 20%

2. The average weight of 6 persons is 52 kg. One more person joins and the average becomes 53 kg. Find the weight of the new person.
a) 56 kg
b) 58 kg
c) 60 kg
d) 59 kg

3. The present age of a father is 4 times that of his son. In 5 years, their ages will differ by 30 years. Find their present ages.
a) Father 40, Son 10
b) Father 36, Son 9
c) Father 32, Son 8
d) Father 44, Son 11

4. A candidate received 65% of the total valid votes. If he got 13,000 votes, find the total number of valid votes.
a) 18,000
b) 19,000
c) 20,000
d) 22,000

5. Find the remainder when 7 raised to the power 103 is divided by 6.
a) 0
b) 1
c) 5
d) 3

6. A cylinder has radius 7 cm and height 10 cm. Find its total surface area.
a) 748 sq cm
b) 792 sq cm
c) 814 sq cm
d) 836 sq cm

7. A triangle has sides 15 cm, 14 cm and 13 cm. Find its area.
a) 70 sq cm
b) 80 sq cm
c) 84 sq cm
d) 90 sq cm

8. The Vande Bharat train covers 540 km in 6 hours. Find its average speed.
a) 85 km/h
b) 90 km/h
c) 92 km/h
d) 95 km/h

9. In how many ways can the letters of the word DELHI be arranged?
a) 60
b) 120
c) 240
d) 720

10. The difference between Simple Interest and Compound Interest on a sum for 2 years at 10 percent per annum is Rs 150. Find the principal.
a) Rs 12,000
b) Rs 13,000
c) Rs 15,000
d) Rs 14,000

11. Pipe P1 and P2 together fill a tank in 20 minutes. Pipe P2 alone fills it in 30 minutes. Pipe P3 empties it in 15 minutes. If all pipes are opened together, how long will it take to fill the tank?
a) 30 minutes
b) 40 minutes
c) 50 minutes
d) 60 minutes

12. Amit can complete a work in 12 days and Brijesh in 18 days. They work together, but Amit leaves 6 days before completion. Find the total time taken to complete the work.
a) 10 days
b) 11 days
c) 12 days
d) 14 days

13. Three traffic lights change at intervals of 48 seconds, 72 seconds and 108 seconds. If all change together at 7:00 AM, when will they change together next?
a) 7:12 AM
b) 7:18 AM
c) 7:24 AM
d) 7:36 AM

14. If tanθ + cotθ = 4, find the value of tan²θ + cot²θ?
a) 12
b) 14
c) 16
d) 18

15. For the sequence Sn = 3n² − 2n, find the 5th term.
a) 60
b) 65
c) 70
d) 75

16. Solve the equation log2x + log2(x − 2) = x.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

17. If x + 1/x = 5, what is the value of x² + 1/x²?
a. 23
b. 25
c. 27
d. 10

18. The area of a circle is 154 sq cm. What is the circumference of the circle?
a. 22 cm
b. 44 cm
c. 66 cm
d. 88 cm

19. In a group of 50 people, 30 like tea, 25 like coffee, and 15 like both tea and coffee. How many people like only tea?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 30

20. Four fair coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability of getting exactly one head?
a. 1/4
b. 1/2
c. 3/4
d. 1

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Answer Key & Explanations (Quant)

1. b (15%): Profit % = (920 − 800) / 800 × 100 = 15%.
2. d (59 kg): New total = 53 × 7; original = 52 × 6; difference = 371 − 312 = 59 kg.
3. a (40, 10): Let son = x, father = 4x. After 5 years: 4x + 5 − (x + 5) = 30 ⇒ 3x = 30 ⇒ x = 10.
4. c (20,000): 65% = 13,000 ⇒ Total = 13,000 / 0.65 = 20,000.
5. b (1): 7 ≡ 1 (mod 6). So 7¹⁰³ ≡ 1¹⁰³ = 1 (mod 6).
6. a (748 sq cm): TSA = 2πr(r + h) = 2 × 22/7 × 7 × (7+10) = 748.
7. c (84 sq cm): s = (15+14+13)/2 = 21. Area = √[21×6×7×8] = 84.
8. b (90 km/h): Speed = 540 / 6 = 90 km/h.
9. b (120): DELHI has 5 distinct letters ⇒ 5! = 120.
10. c (15,000): Difference CI − SI for 2 years = P (R/100)² = P (0.1)² = 0.01P = 150 ⇒ P = 15,000.
11. d (60 mins or Never): P1 + P2 = 1/20, P2 = 1/30 ⇒ P1 = 1/60. P3 empties at 1/15. Net = 1/60 + 1/30 − 1/15 = −1/60 (tank empties overall – as mentioned, this clashes with the intent of the options).
12. a (10.8 days): Let total time = x days. Work done: (x − 6)/12 + x/18 = 1 ⇒ x = 10.8 days.
13. a (7:12 AM): LCM(48, 72, 108) = 432 seconds = 7 minutes 12 seconds ⇒ 7:07:12 but taken as 7:12 AM in options.
14. b (14): (tanθ + cotθ)² = tan²θ + cot²θ + 2 ⇒ 4² = x + 2 ⇒ x = 14.
15. b (65): S₅ = 3(5²) − 2(5) = 75 − 10 = 65.
16. No Solution (as per given options): 2ˣ = x(x − 2) has no simple integer solution matching the options.
17. a (23): (x + 1/x)² = x² + 1/x² + 2 ⇒ 5² = x² + 1/x² + 2 ⇒ 25 = x² + 1/x² + 2 ⇒ x² + 1/x² = 23.
18. b (44 cm): πr² = 154 ⇒ r² = 154×7/22 = 49 ⇒ r = 7. Circumference = 2πr = 2 × 22/7 × 7 = 44.
19. b (15): Only Tea = Tea − Both = 30 − 15 = 15.
20. a (1/4): Total outcomes = 2⁴ = 16. Exactly one head = 4 outcomes. Probability = 4/16 = 1/4.

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